the Weimar Republic has often been characterized as a “a democracy without democrats” and “a republic without republicans.” (Note that these words do not mean “Democrats” and “Republicans” in the contemporary American sense–political parties–but rather refer to the political system and the form of state in place in Germany at the time.) How do you interpret this statement as applied to Weimar? Do you agree with this assertion? Why or why not? The subtext of this discussion and a question we might also begin to consider is: why did the Weimar Republic ultimately fail?

Please remember to cite evidence from your readings (both Paxton Europe in the Twentieth Century, 5th Edition (Coursesmart eBook) and primary sources) in your answer, using Chicago formatting.