Explain, how does Aristotle/Aquinas’ account of the human soul differ from Plato’s in the Phaedo? Which one do you find more convincing?

“Having shown that the soul is the whole body’s actuality, its ‘parts’ being the actualities of the body’s parts, and granted that an actuality or form cannot be separated from that which is actual and has form, we can certainly conclude that no soul can be separated from its body, – at least certain parts of the soul cannot be separated, if the soul can be said to have parts. For obviously some ‘parts’ of the soul are nothing but actualities of parts of the body; as we have seen in the case of sight, that it is the eye’s actuality. On the other hand, certain parts of the soul may well be separable from the body, since they are not the actuality of any corporeal part, as will be proved when we come to treat of the intellect.

As to Plato’s opinion that the soul is the act of the body not as its form but as its mover, he [Aristotle] adds that it is not yet clear whether the soul is the act of the body as a sailor of a ship, i.e. as its mover only.”

(Aquinas, Commentary on Aristotle, De anima, Lecture 2, § 242-243 [p.27])

Explain the quote!

It may be useful to ask yourself the following questions:

• Why is the soul the actuality of the body? What does actuality mean?

• Why can it not be separated from the body?

• What are the “parts of the soul”? Why does Aquinas add “if the soul can be said to have parts”?

• Why may a part of the soul be separable? What exactly does Aquinas mean?

• How does Aristotle/Aquinas’ account of the human soul differ from Plato’s in the Phaedo? Which one do you find more convincing?

Write 4 pages, bibliography and endnotes not included; double-spaced, Times New Roman 12pt, 1 inch margin. Use Chicago Manual Style (CMS). Do not forget to list all sources in your bibliography (plagiarism!). Pay attention to grammatical, orthographical, and formal correctness; consult Hacker-Sommers, The Bedford Handbook.


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